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Old Jul 07, 2005, 06:45 AM // 06:45   #1
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Default Armor equation question

ok, so the armor modifier equation for a caster assault is...

Actual Damage = Base Damage x 2 ^ ((Level*3 - Armor Rating ) /40)


My question is...if I am level 20 and I have AR60, wouldn't the equation result in zero?


AD = BD x 2 ^ ((60 - 60) / 40)

simplified...

AD = BD x 2 ^ (0 / 40)

and again...

AD = BD x 2 ^ 0


I can understand that if you have < AR60 then you would get a higher factor therefore the AD > BD and the opposite is apparent...but...

anything to the power of zero is zero...so multiply the base damage by zero and you get....zero

thoughts?

Last edited by Sereng Amaranth; Jul 07, 2005 at 06:49 AM // 06:49..
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Old Jul 07, 2005, 06:50 AM // 06:50   #2
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Anything to the power of zero is one.
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Old Jul 07, 2005, 07:13 AM // 07:13   #3
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meh, math ^ my memory > me
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Old Jul 07, 2005, 07:13 AM // 07:13   #4
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Sorry, but - maths might need a refresher for you

x^0 = 1 always.

So - when you are lvl 20, and facing 60 armour, your actual damage = your base damage
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Old Jul 07, 2005, 03:12 PM // 15:12   #5
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Aranador
Sorry, but - maths might need a refresher for you

x^0 = 1 always.

So - when you are lvl 20, and facing 60 armour, your actual damage = your base damage
Ouch, don´t tell that a math professor. He will kill you! x^0 = 1 always? That is simply not right!

infinity^0 = ?

0^0 = ?
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Old Jul 07, 2005, 03:15 PM // 15:15   #6
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Kashrlyyk
Ouch, don´t tell that a math professor. He will kill you! x^0 = 1 always? That is simply not right!

infinity^0 = ?

0^0 = ?

Infinity is not a number

-Diomedes
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Old Jul 07, 2005, 03:20 PM // 15:20   #7
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Diomedes
Infinity is not a number

-Diomedes
I know!

limes of exp(-x)^(1/x) for x = infinity => 0^0 = exp(-1)



limes of exp(x)^(1/x) for x = infinity => infinity^0 = exp(1)


Last edited by Kashrlyyk; Jul 07, 2005 at 03:30 PM // 15:30..
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Old Jul 07, 2005, 04:00 PM // 16:00   #8
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Kashrlyyk
Ouch, don´t tell that a math professor. He will kill you! x^0 = 1 always? That is simply not right!

infinity^0 = ?

0^0 = ?
0^0 is 1. At least, that is what is commonly accepted, since it solves so many problems - it is technically indeterminate, but 0^0=1 satisfies the binomial theorem and many other problems.

Edit: by satisfies, I mean that allowing x^0=1 for all x allows the binomial theorem to be true for x=0, y=0 and x=-y.

Last edited by Epinephrine; Jul 07, 2005 at 04:03 PM // 16:03..
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Old Jul 07, 2005, 04:01 PM // 16:01   #9
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so many number my brans hurted now
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Old Jul 07, 2005, 04:31 PM // 16:31   #10
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I feel like I'm back in grade 10 math. My brain hurts!
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